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Slave breeding and forced sex claims of atheists debunked!! Exodus 21:4

Q4. Did God permit slave breeding program in Exodus 21:4? Was this a trick to permanently enslave Hebrew slaves? Were the slaves forced to have sex?
Ans: Well, this is a very controversial verse, Bible commentators hold different views about this. But let us look at the atheistic view: atheists say that this promotes slave breeding program and rape or forced sex of slaves. Again, this is a false claim.

(rape or forced sex): Exodus 21:4 literally doesn't indicate anything forced, this is a made up and false view because rape (Deuteronomy 22:25-27) and prostitution (Leviticus 19:29Deuteronomy 23:17-18are prohibited. 

(slave breeding & permanent servitude): Now Atheists read Exodus 21:4 by keeping the idea of immoral Slave breeding in United States. I will show you how this differed from the Biblical one.

Let us see what Slave breeding in United States was (Source:Wikipedia)-
"Slave breeding included coerced sexual relations between male and female slaves, promoting pregnancies of slaves, and favouring female slaves who could produce a relatively large number of children."
Slave accounts: "In the antebellum years, numerous escaped slaves wrote about their experiences in books called slave narratives. Many recounted that at least a portion of slave owners continuously interfered in the sexual lives of their slaves (usually the women). The slave narratives also testified that slave women were subjected to arranged marriages, forced matings, sexual violation by masters, their sons or overseers, and other forms of abuse."
According to many scholars who look at the repetitive descriptions in texts that were written around same time of other cultures from well documented Graeco-Roman culture, owning slaves was as status symbol for masters, this showed a level of luxury. In addition to showing luxury,  possession of slaves was necessary for a good family background. So masters desired to increase their slaves. Giving their female slaves to male slaves in marriage was way to beget him more slaves. Similarly, it was a desire and blessing for a Hebrew male slave who is in debt to get a wife without paying a dowry. A dowry sometimes called a bride price or bride wealth was a payment made by a man as a gift to the family (Genesis 34:12Genesis 24:531Kings 9:16). Hebrew male slave probably was aware of the consequence he was going to face. So by accepting the blessing he entered into voluntary indentured servitude which is moral. Exodus 21:5 shows that the slave had a great affection for his master, and accepted this so that he may enjoy his wife and children he dearly loved; he was no doubt often well treated which made him prefer slavery with comfort to freedom with destitution. 

Exodus 21:4  in contrast to the Slave breeding in United States  was moral because forced sex was not allowed as rape was prohibited and interference in the sexual life of slaves by masters was not allowed as adultery was prohibited (Exodus 20:14Leviticus 19:20). Female slaves who were betrothed to master's son were to be dealt according to the custom of daughters by their master (Exodus 21:9).

Arranged marriages were common in Bible times, and it was possible that the bride and groom might not even know each other until they met at the wedding ceremony. But unfortunately atheists are unable to distinguish the difference between arranged marriages and forced marriages. What seems strange to modern westerners is that neither sexual attraction nor love was considered a necessary prelude to marriage. Parents who arranged a marriage for their children assumed that love and affection would grow out of intimate acquaintance and sexual bonding that naturally takes place in a marriage (Note: God didn't say anything about arranged marriages it was a culture). The basic difference between forced marriage and arranged marriage was: in arranged marriages brides were given some choice regarding whether she accepted the offer (Genesis 24:57-58). By these we can understand that the  marriage of female slave should not be considered as forced but arranged. Deuteronomy 22:25-27 tells that God was against forced sex and so God wouldn't have permitted arranged marriages if it was being done forcefully.

During historical periods covered by the Bible, most societies were patriarchal, meaning men held exclusive power with the rare exception of ruling queen. A man was needed for woman's protection and for her economical supports. So women mostly depended on men. So it can be assumed that female slave agreed marrying. 

Slavery in the Old testament. False claims against Exodus, Leviticus and Deuteronomy debunked!!

Introduction:-

This is in response to the continued expressing of 'Biblical Slavery was Immoral' posts by Atheists that I keep seeing on the internet. This is meant to be a short response because to relentlessly assault the Bible is the fervent passion of many Atheists, to rattle the faith of the Christians is their vocation. I will not be fleeing from objections like most Atheists. I will be answering sincere Atheists on the same topic. I may add one or more questions later if I think it to be important.



Q1. Did God condone slavery in the Old testament? 
Ans: Yes, God permitted a moral slavery. Now this may irritate you but I urge you to read the answers of below questions in which I have brought some atheistic claims and exposed it to be false. We can see how God allowed slavery by reading these verses:-
Go through the below questions to know how it was moral.

Q2. Was slavery a part of God's plan?
Ans: When God gave the law to Moses, slavery was a part of the world, and so the law of God recognised and regulated slavery. But this does not mean that slavery was God’s original intention. The law of Moses was given to fallen man. God’s laws concerning slavery provided parameters for treatment of slaves, which were for the benefit of all involved. God desires all men and nations to be liberated. The Biblical slave laws reflect God’s redemptive desire, for men and nations. Some of the ordinances deal with things not intended for the original creation order, such as slavery and divorce (Matthew 19:8). These will be completely eliminated only when sin is eliminated from the earth. 

Q3. Were Exodus laws applicable to non-Hebrews? 
Ans: Atheists claim that the Exodus laws weren't applicable to the non-Hebrews. But this is a false claim. Exodus laws except the special laws (like term of slavery) were applicable to non-Hebrews (Leviticus 24:15-16Leviticus 24:22Numbers 15:15-16)

Q4. Did God permit slave breeding program in Exodus 21:4? Was this a trick to permanently enslave Hebrew slaves? Were the slaves forced to have sex?
Ans: (For a detailed answer click here)
Well, this is a very controversial verse, Bible commentators hold different views about this. But let us hear what atheists say: atheists say that this promotes slave breeding program and rape or forced sex of slaves. Again, this is a false claim.
Q5. "Divorced wife and children of Hebrew slave belonged to the master" was this injustice (Exodus 21:4)?
Ans: Atheists claim that Biblical slavery was immoral because wife and children of Hebrew slave belonged to the master when he went free. Let us see this deeply, was this an injustice?
  • The master had right unto the wife as she was his slave, and bought with his money.
  • The master had right unto the children as they were the birth following the belly, this was totally justice because he that owns the tree has right to all its fruit.
  • At this early times, children's relationship to their mother was held to be closer and more binding than that to their father.
So by this we can conclude that this wasn't immoral or injustice.

Q6. "Biblical slavery was immoral because slaves who were born into slavery didn't enter voluntarily/didn't have free will"(Exodus 21:4) is this claim true?
Ans: This is a ridiculously false claim. In Biblical times children honored parents' decisions (Judges 11:36-38). Even we didn't voluntarily choose to be born in Asia or Africa it was our parents' decision but this doesn't make Asia or Africa immoral for allowing children to be born without their consent.See Q5.

Q7. Did God allow fathers to sell their daughters as sex slaves in Exodus 21:7)?/Did God promote sex slavery?
Ans: Sexual slavery is attaching the right of ownership over one or more persons with the intent of forcing them to engage in one or more sexual activities. This includes forced labor, reducing a person to a servile status (including forced marriages) and sex trafficking persons. Selling daughters was forced either by poverty, or else with the intent that the master should marry her. None of the above attributes of sex slavery matches with Exodus 21:7 the basic definition is defeated because daughters were sold to be wives of their masters. This can concluded by:-
  • Exodus 21:8 which says that if she pleases not her master, who hath bethrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed.
  • (Exodus 21:8) If she was sold for servitude she would had gone out after serving six years 
Q8. Were masters allowed to kill their slaves indirectly? Is it true a slave could be beaten within an inch of his or her life? (Exodus 21:20-21).                   
Ans: The tool mentioned in Exodus 21:20 is a rod. In the culture of the Israelites, the rod was a natural symbol of authority, as the tool used by shepherd to correct and guide his flock(Psalms 23:4), and for disciplining children (Proverbs 13:24). Disciplining with rod wasn't severe and wouldn't lead to death (Proverbs 23:13).
  • So when a slave died as a result of getting beaten by a rod, it simply meant that his master had intended to kill him so he was to be punished. 
  • Exodus 21:21  "if, however, he survives a day or two" -the notion is, that unless the death follows speedily it must be presumed not to have done this purposely and maliciously,
  •  " no vengeance shall be taken; for he is his money " -the master should not be punished because he didn't do it purposely and he is punished by his own loss. 
  • It may be resonably thought he did not strike his slave with an intention to kill him, since he himself is the loser by it. 
No,a slave couldn't be beaten within an inch of his / her life because Leviticus 25:43 prohibits Israelites to rule over slaves with severity.

Q9. Was Biblical slavery better than that of other nations?
Ans: Hebrew laws were far superior to the codes of the pagan nations with reference to slaves. For example, there are some glaring contrasts between the law of Moses and the Code of Hammurabi (a Babylonian ruler) with reference to slaves. Under law #16, harboring a runaway slave incurred death penalty. Under the Hebrew system, a runaway slave seeking refuge could not be returned to his master (Deuteronomy 23:15). Under mosaic law, robbery required restitution- either in actual payment or service (Exodus 22:3). Babylonian law #6 made robbery a capital offense. Exodus 1:13-14 shows how Egyptians treated Israelites but on the contrary Jehovah asked Israelites not to oppress strangers (Exodus 22:21). This shows God's redemptive desires.

Q10. Did God condone 'Chattel Slavery' in Leviticus 25:45? Did God ask Israelites to treat pagan slaves as their Chattels ?( For detailed answer click here)
Ans:  No, slaves weren't
So, the basic meaning of chattel slavery is violated as slaves weren't to be treated as chattels but were to be loved as a native Israelite (Leviticus 19:33-34)

Qll. "Foreign slaves were kept permanently & obtained involuntarily" is this justifiable? Leviticus 25:45. (For detailed answer click here)
Ans:  Atheists claim that Biblical slavery was immoral because: -
  • God commanded Israelites to keep their foreign slaves permanently.
  • Foreign slaves became slaves involuntarily. 
Q12. Were pagan slaves forced to be circumcised? Was this immoral?
Ans: Yes, pagan slaves were forced to be circumcised (Genesis 17:12-13).Atheists misunderstand this.
  • it wasn't ordered exclusively for pagan slaves, even masters and Hebrew slaves were ordered to be circumcised. So it didn't discriminate between pagan slaves and Hebrew slaves.
  • In fact, it raised their social status. Circumcision was enjoyed by Abraham, his descendants and their slaves as "a token of the covenant" concluded with him by God for all generations, an "everlasting covenant". Non-Israelite slaves were made under this covenant by circumcision. Atheist do not see the outcome of being circumcised. After being circumcised a slave enjoyed rights to participate in religious feasts and festivals (Exodus 12:43-49). 
So, this wasn't immoral. Children are often afraid of taking vaccines but still they are forced by their parents for their own welfare.

Q13. Did God approve raping female captives of war? (Deuteronomy 21:10-14) For detailed answer click here.
Ans: According to the war customs of all ancient nations, females weren't killed in the battles but were taken as spoils/ captives. For example, in 1 Samuel 30 Amalekites didn't kill any Israelite women but took them as captives. Whether it was voluntary or involuntary should not be considered as a feature of Biblical slavery because it was a custom. God accepted this custom because he wanted everyone to be saved (Isaiah 45:22-23).

Q14. Does Leviticus 19:20 condemn capital punishment for rapists who rape slaves?
Ans: It is a misconception Leviticus 19:20 doesn't speak about rape but adultery. "they shall not, however, be put to death," this shows that both were to be punished. Both were never punished for rape but only in case of adultery (Deuteronomy 22:22), in Israel bethrothal was treated as marriage (Deuteronomy 22:23-24).







Did God promote 'Chattel Slavery' in Leviticus 25:45?

Now let us see what chattel slavery is : (Source-Wikipedia)
Chattel slavery, also called traditional slavery, is so named because people are treated as chattel (Personal Property) of the owner and are bought and sold as commodities.
As I was studying this claim, I was infuriated by the crafty ways Atheists use to falsify God. I thank Jesus for helping me to recognise it.

Whenever Atheists quote Leviticus 25:45 they change their Bible version. Atheists usually use KJV and NIV but when it is time for them to quote Leviticus 25:45 they use NLT because,
NIV says- "and they will become your property"
ESV says- "and they may be your property"
NASB says-"they also may become your possession"
KJV says-"and they shall be your possession"
but
NLT says-"You may treat them as your property"

They don't even consider its meaning to be same as of other versions but take it literally. Someone being your property is different from treating someone as your property. Were slaves treated as chattels (livestocks)?

So, the basic meaning of chattel slavery is violated as slaves weren't to be treated as chattels but were to be loved as a native Israelite (Leviticus 19:33-34)






Foreign Slaves. Was this Immoral ?

Foreign Slaves: Permanent & Involuntary slavery defended!! (Leviticus 25: 44-46)

Atheists claim that Biblical slavery was immoral because: - 
  • God commanded Israelites to keep their foreign slaves permanently.
  • Foreign slaves became slaves involuntarily. 

What the Atheists do not seem to understand is that the slaves from the surrounding pagan nations mentioned in Leviticus 25:44-46 were those whom Israel were to either drive out or kill. Under the circumstances, slavery was a rather humane option.



The Israelites were restricted to the Ammonites, the Moabites, the Edomites, and the Syrians, who were their neighbours, but were not permitted to buy any slaves from the seven nations who were in the midst of them, and whom they were ordered to destroy (Deuteronomy 20:16-18). When we read the Bible we can see how Israelites fought against them and destroyed their inhabitants.
Israelites bought slaves from foreign slave traders (Genesis 17:12). As we know that Israel's slavery was better than that of other nations so this law rescued foreign slaves from being sold to wicked nations. In fact, Deuteronomy 23:15,  which forbids Israelites to hand over a runaway slave to his master, was given in order to save pagan slaves who ran away from their oppressors and came to Israel. This shows how God desires all men and nations to be liberated. 

One of the reasons why Hebrew slaves were freed was to return to the property of their forefathers (Leviticus 25:41) but in case of pagan slaves, they were sold by their own nations so they probably didn't own any possessions and if they were freed they would surely starve to death or become end to other wicked nations. And we know that Jehovah claimed to be a jealous (feeling or showing a resentful suspicion that one's partner is attracted to or involved with someone else) God.



Slavery in the Old Testament: Female captives of war

Did God approve raping female captives of war? (Deut 21:10-14)

Atheist often use this verse to show others how the Bible condones rape and slavery. But we should know that they are superficial readers who keep some handpicked verses which when superficially read misguide us.



"When you go out to battle against your enemies, and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take them away captive, 11 and see among the captives a beautiful woman, and have a desire for her and would take her as a wife for yourself, 12 then you shall bring her home to your house, and she shall shave her head and trim her nails. 13 She shall also remove the clothes of her captivity and shall remain in your house, and mourn her father and mother a full month; and after that you may go in to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife. 14 It shall be, if you are not pleased with her, then you shall let her go wherever she wishes; but you shall certainly not sell her for money, you shall not mistreat her, because you have humbled her."
and you take them away captive -  According to the war customs of all ancient nations, females weren't killed in the battles but were taken as spoils/ captives. For example, in 1 Samuel 30 Amalekites didn't kill any Israelite women but took them as captives. Whether it was voluntary or involuntary should not be considered as a feature of Biblical slavery because it was a custom. God accepted this custom because he wanted everyone to be saved (Isaiah 45:22-23).

see among the captives a beautiful woman, and have a desire for her and would take her as a wife for yourself,- women captives were often raped and sold as slaves by other nations but it was different with the Israelites, they couldn't have sex with slaves for fulfilling their sexual desires, the verse says that they should have a desire for her and should be willing take her as a wife. 

then you shall bring her home to your house, and she shall shave her head and trim her nails. She shall also remove the clothes of her captivity and shall remain in your house, and mourn her father and mother a full month; and after that you may go in to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife- God enacted that, in the event that her master was captivated by her beauty and contemplated a marriage with her, a month should be allowed to elapse, during which her perturbed feelings might be calmed, her mind reconciled to her altered condition, and she might bewail the loss of her parents, now to her the same as dead. A month was the usual period of mourning with the Jews, and the circumstances mentioned here were the signs of grief—the shaving of the head, the allowing the nails to grow uncut, the putting off her gorgeous dress in which ladies, on the eve of being captured, arrayed themselves to be the more attractive to their captors. The delay was full of humanity and kindness to the female slave, as well as a prudential measure to try the strength of her master's affections.

if you are not pleased with her, then you shall let her go wherever she wishes- if his affection cooled towards her, and all the above methods tended to abate his love of her, then he was obliged to dismiss her, or to grant her her freedom, and let her go wherever she pleased.

you shall not mistreat her, because you have humbled her- by humiliating, disappointing and disgracing as he divorced her, in Israel bethrothal was treated as marriage (Deuteronomy 22:23-24).

During historical periods covered by the Bible, most societies were patriarchal, meaning men held exclusive power with the rare exception of ruling queen. A man was needed for woman's protection and for her economical supports. So women mostly depended on men.