Introduction:-
This is in response to the continued expressing of 'Biblical Slavery was Immoral' posts by Atheists that I keep seeing on the internet. This is meant to be a short response because to relentlessly assault the Bible is the fervent passion of many Atheists, to rattle the faith of the Christians is their vocation. I will not be fleeing from objections like most Atheists. I will be answering sincere Atheists on the same topic. I may add one or more questions later if I think it to be important.
Q1. Did God condone slavery in the Old testament?
Ans: Yes, God permitted a moral slavery. Now this may irritate you but I urge you to read the answers of below questions in which I have brought some atheistic claims and exposed it to be false. We can see how God allowed slavery by reading these verses:-
Go through the below questions to know how it was moral.
Q2. Was slavery a part of God's plan?
Ans: When God gave the law to Moses, slavery was a part of the world, and so the law of God recognised and regulated slavery. But this does not mean that slavery was God’s original intention. The law of Moses was given to fallen man. God’s laws concerning slavery provided parameters for treatment of slaves, which were for the benefit of all involved. God desires all men and nations to be liberated. The Biblical slave laws reflect God’s redemptive desire, for men and nations. Some of the ordinances deal with things not intended for the original creation order, such as slavery and divorce (Matthew 19:8). These will be completely eliminated only when sin is eliminated from the earth.
Q3. Were Exodus laws applicable to non-Hebrews?
Ans: Atheists claim that the Exodus laws weren't applicable to the non-Hebrews. But this is a false claim. Exodus laws except the special laws (like term of slavery) were applicable to non-Hebrews (Leviticus 24:15-16, Leviticus 24:22, Numbers 15:15-16)
Q4. Did God permit slave breeding program in Exodus 21:4? Was this a trick to permanently enslave Hebrew slaves? Were the slaves forced to have sex?
Ans: (For a detailed answer click here)
Well, this is a very controversial verse, Bible commentators hold different views about this. But let us hear what atheists say: atheists say that this promotes slave breeding program and rape or forced sex of slaves. Again, this is a false claim.
Well, this is a very controversial verse, Bible commentators hold different views about this. But let us hear what atheists say: atheists say that this promotes slave breeding program and rape or forced sex of slaves. Again, this is a false claim.
- (rape or forced sex): Exodus 21:4 literally doesn't indicate anything forced, this is a made up and false view because rape (Deuteronomy 22:25-27) and prostitution (Leviticus 19:29, Deuteronomy 23:17-18) are prohibited.
- (slave breeding & permanent servitude): Now Atheists read Exodus 21:4 by keeping the idea of immoral Slave breeding in United States. I will show you how this differed from the Biblical one click here.
Ans: Atheists claim that Biblical slavery was immoral because wife and children of Hebrew slave belonged to the master when he went free. Let us see this deeply, was this an injustice?
Q6. "Biblical slavery was immoral because slaves who were born into slavery didn't enter voluntarily/didn't have free will"(Exodus 21:4) is this claim true?
Ans: This is a ridiculously false claim. In Biblical times children honored parents' decisions (Judges 11:36-38). Even we didn't voluntarily choose to be born in Asia or Africa it was our parents' decision but this doesn't make Asia or Africa immoral for allowing children to be born without their consent.See Q5.
Q7. Did God allow fathers to sell their daughters as sex slaves in Exodus 21:7)?/Did God promote sex slavery?
Ans: Sexual slavery is attaching the right of ownership over one or more persons with the intent of forcing them to engage in one or more sexual activities. This includes forced labor, reducing a person to a servile status (including forced marriages) and sex trafficking persons. Selling daughters was forced either by poverty, or else with the intent that the master should marry her. None of the above attributes of sex slavery matches with Exodus 21:7 the basic definition is defeated because daughters were sold to be wives of their masters. This can concluded by:-
Ans: The tool mentioned in Exodus 21:20 is a rod. In the culture of the Israelites, the rod was a natural symbol of authority, as the tool used by shepherd to correct and guide his flock(Psalms 23:4), and for disciplining children (Proverbs 13:24). Disciplining with rod wasn't severe and wouldn't lead to death (Proverbs 23:13).
- The master had right unto the wife as she was his slave, and bought with his money.
- The master had right unto the children as they were the birth following the belly, this was totally justice because he that owns the tree has right to all its fruit.
- At this early times, children's relationship to their mother was held to be closer and more binding than that to their father.
Q6. "Biblical slavery was immoral because slaves who were born into slavery didn't enter voluntarily/didn't have free will"(Exodus 21:4) is this claim true?
Ans: This is a ridiculously false claim. In Biblical times children honored parents' decisions (Judges 11:36-38). Even we didn't voluntarily choose to be born in Asia or Africa it was our parents' decision but this doesn't make Asia or Africa immoral for allowing children to be born without their consent.See Q5.
Q7. Did God allow fathers to sell their daughters as sex slaves in Exodus 21:7)?/Did God promote sex slavery?
Ans: Sexual slavery is attaching the right of ownership over one or more persons with the intent of forcing them to engage in one or more sexual activities. This includes forced labor, reducing a person to a servile status (including forced marriages) and sex trafficking persons. Selling daughters was forced either by poverty, or else with the intent that the master should marry her. None of the above attributes of sex slavery matches with Exodus 21:7 the basic definition is defeated because daughters were sold to be wives of their masters. This can concluded by:-
- Exodus 21:8 which says that if she pleases not her master, who hath bethrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed.
- (Exodus 21:8) If she was sold for servitude she would had gone out after serving six years
Ans: The tool mentioned in Exodus 21:20 is a rod. In the culture of the Israelites, the rod was a natural symbol of authority, as the tool used by shepherd to correct and guide his flock(Psalms 23:4), and for disciplining children (Proverbs 13:24). Disciplining with rod wasn't severe and wouldn't lead to death (Proverbs 23:13).
- So when a slave died as a result of getting beaten by a rod, it simply meant that his master had intended to kill him so he was to be punished.
- Exodus 21:21 "if, however, he survives a day or two" -the notion is, that unless the death follows speedily it must be presumed not to have done this purposely and maliciously,
- " no vengeance shall be taken; for he is his money " -the master should not be punished because he didn't do it purposely and he is punished by his own loss.
- It may be resonably thought he did not strike his slave with an intention to kill him, since he himself is the loser by it.
Q9. Was Biblical slavery better than that of other nations?
Ans: Hebrew laws were far superior to the codes of the pagan nations with reference to slaves. For example, there are some glaring contrasts between the law of Moses and the Code of Hammurabi (a Babylonian ruler) with reference to slaves. Under law #16, harboring a runaway slave incurred death penalty. Under the Hebrew system, a runaway slave seeking refuge could not be returned to his master (Deuteronomy 23:15). Under mosaic law, robbery required restitution- either in actual payment or service (Exodus 22:3). Babylonian law #6 made robbery a capital offense. Exodus 1:13-14 shows how Egyptians treated Israelites but on the contrary Jehovah asked Israelites not to oppress strangers (Exodus 22:21). This shows God's redemptive desires.
Q10. Did God condone 'Chattel Slavery' in Leviticus 25:45? Did God ask Israelites to treat pagan slaves as their Chattels ?( For detailed answer click here)
Ans: No, slaves weren't
Ans: Hebrew laws were far superior to the codes of the pagan nations with reference to slaves. For example, there are some glaring contrasts between the law of Moses and the Code of Hammurabi (a Babylonian ruler) with reference to slaves. Under law #16, harboring a runaway slave incurred death penalty. Under the Hebrew system, a runaway slave seeking refuge could not be returned to his master (Deuteronomy 23:15). Under mosaic law, robbery required restitution- either in actual payment or service (Exodus 22:3). Babylonian law #6 made robbery a capital offense. Exodus 1:13-14 shows how Egyptians treated Israelites but on the contrary Jehovah asked Israelites not to oppress strangers (Exodus 22:21). This shows God's redemptive desires.
Q10. Did God condone 'Chattel Slavery' in Leviticus 25:45? Did God ask Israelites to treat pagan slaves as their Chattels ?( For detailed answer click here)
Ans: No, slaves weren't
- Slaves were given rights of protection against physical and sexual abuse-Exodus 21:7-11, 20-21, 26-27
- Slaves were not allowed to be killed (Leviticus 24:17)
- Slaves were given rights to participate in religious festivals. (Deuteronomy 12: 11-12)
- Slaves were given rest on the Sabbath day (Exodus 23:12)
So, the basic meaning of chattel slavery is violated as slaves weren't to be treated as chattels but were to be loved as a native Israelite (Leviticus 19:33-34)
Qll. "Foreign slaves were kept permanently & obtained involuntarily" is this justifiable? Leviticus 25:45. (For detailed answer click here)
Ans: Atheists claim that Biblical slavery was immoral because: -
Qll. "Foreign slaves were kept permanently & obtained involuntarily" is this justifiable? Leviticus 25:45. (For detailed answer click here)
Ans: Atheists claim that Biblical slavery was immoral because: -
- God commanded Israelites to keep their foreign slaves permanently.
- Foreign slaves became slaves involuntarily.
Q12. Were pagan slaves forced to be circumcised? Was this immoral?
Ans: Yes, pagan slaves were forced to be circumcised (Genesis 17:12-13).Atheists misunderstand this.
Q13. Did God approve raping female captives of war? (Deuteronomy 21:10-14) For detailed answer click here.
Ans: According to the war customs of all ancient nations, females weren't killed in the battles but were taken as spoils/ captives. For example, in 1 Samuel 30 Amalekites didn't kill any Israelite women but took them as captives. Whether it was voluntary or involuntary should not be considered as a feature of Biblical slavery because it was a custom. God accepted this custom because he wanted everyone to be saved (Isaiah 45:22-23).
Q14. Does Leviticus 19:20 condemn capital punishment for rapists who rape slaves?
Ans: It is a misconception Leviticus 19:20 doesn't speak about rape but adultery. "they shall not, however, be put to death," this shows that both were to be punished. Both were never punished for rape but only in case of adultery (Deuteronomy 22:22), in Israel bethrothal was treated as marriage (Deuteronomy 22:23-24).
- it wasn't ordered exclusively for pagan slaves, even masters and Hebrew slaves were ordered to be circumcised. So it didn't discriminate between pagan slaves and Hebrew slaves.
- In fact, it raised their social status. Circumcision was enjoyed by Abraham, his descendants and their slaves as "a token of the covenant" concluded with him by God for all generations, an "everlasting covenant". Non-Israelite slaves were made under this covenant by circumcision. Atheist do not see the outcome of being circumcised. After being circumcised a slave enjoyed rights to participate in religious feasts and festivals (Exodus 12:43-49).
Q13. Did God approve raping female captives of war? (Deuteronomy 21:10-14) For detailed answer click here.
Ans: According to the war customs of all ancient nations, females weren't killed in the battles but were taken as spoils/ captives. For example, in 1 Samuel 30 Amalekites didn't kill any Israelite women but took them as captives. Whether it was voluntary or involuntary should not be considered as a feature of Biblical slavery because it was a custom. God accepted this custom because he wanted everyone to be saved (Isaiah 45:22-23).
Q14. Does Leviticus 19:20 condemn capital punishment for rapists who rape slaves?
Ans: It is a misconception Leviticus 19:20 doesn't speak about rape but adultery. "they shall not, however, be put to death," this shows that both were to be punished. Both were never punished for rape but only in case of adultery (Deuteronomy 22:22), in Israel bethrothal was treated as marriage (Deuteronomy 22:23-24).
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